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- RF - Rheumatoid Factor (Same-Day Result) | Epicare Health
< Back RF - Rheumatoid Factor (Same-Day Result) £39 Description Rheumatoid Factor (RF) RF is an antibody that can be present in people with rheumatoid arthritis and some other autoimmune conditions. This test helps diagnose and monitor these conditions, especially if you have joint pain, swelling, or stiffness. What's the difference between this and a standard lab blood test? Same-day blood test results are processed in our clinic using advanced equipment, so you receive your results quickly and accurately—ideal for when you want fast answers or to monitor your health. The main difference with a standard blood test is that your sample is sent to an accredited external laboratory, and the results come back as a certified lab report. Both options are reliable and accurate; the key difference is that lab-processed results are officially certified, while same-day results are provided directly from our clinic. Biomarkers: Rheumatoid Factor (RF) Estimated turnaround time: Same day results Note: This service is available for all ages. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required , which will be deducted from the total cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Diphtheria Tetanus Polio (DTP)
£35 per dose < Back Diphtheria Tetanus Polio (DTP) £35 per dose Diphtheria Tetanus Polio (DTP) Diphtheria is a highly infectious bacterial infection that can affect the nose and throat (respiratory diphtheria), and sometimes the skin (cutaneous diphtheria). The bacterium can infect the nose and throat and release a toxin. The main symptoms are sore throat, difficulty and/or pain on swallowing, husky voice, fever, cough and headache. The toxin produced may affect other organs and it can be fatal. In countries where hygiene is poor, cutaneous diphtheria is the main source of infection causing painful, non-healing skin ulcers which often become infected with other bacteria. Severe illness is unusual. This type of diphtheria is spread by contact with discharge from contagious skin lesions. Tetanus is a vaccine-preventable disease caused by a toxin produced by bacteria called Clostridium tetani . Tetanus spores are found in soil throughout the world but is more common in resource-poor countries. The disease is acquired when material containing these spores, such as soil, contaminates a wound. The toxin released from the bacteria may then attack the nerves of the brain and spinal cord, the main symptom is lockjaw (trismus), characterised by uncontrollable spasms and possibly death. Poliomyelitis (polio) is a potentially paralysing, vaccine-preventable, viral infection. The virus is transmitted through food or water contaminated by infected human faeces or by direct contact with an infectious person. Polio is extremely rare in UK travellers, those at increased risk include travellers visiting friends and relatives, those in direct contact with an infected person, long-stay travellers, and those visiting areas of poor sanitation. Most individuals (about 95 percent) who acquire polio do not develop symptoms. When they do occur symptoms may range from a mild illness with fever, to symptoms of meningitis (inflammation of the lining of the brain) or paralysis. Although paralysis occurs in less than one percent of infections it is frequently long lasting. What Vaccines are available? DPT is a combination vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, and polio. It is a single-dose vaccine that requires a booster after 10 years if at continued risk. Vaccine Schedules Adul ts and children above 10 years (single dose) Dose 1: Day 0 Protection Duration: A booster is recommended after 10 years when traveling to a high-risk country. How far in advance do I need to book my vaccine for my trip? You can have the vaccine last up to the day before traveling. Prevention Diphtheria Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent infection. Travellers should ensure they are up to date with their routine vaccines according to the NHS vaccination schedule . Some types of diphtheria bacteria can spread from animals to humans. Travellers should be advised not to consume raw dairy products, to avoid close contact with cattle/farm animals and to follow good personal hygiene rules to minimise risk of infection. Tetanus All travellers should be aware of the risk of accidents, thoroughly clean all wounds and seek appropriate medical attention. Further vaccines and/or immunoglobulin treatment may be recommended. Polio An effective vaccination against polio is available. In addition to vaccination travellers should ensure good personal hygiene and follow advice on prevention of food and water-borne diseases. Need other vaccines? Please click on the links below for travel vaccination requirements/ advice. For vaccine recommendations and information on conditions based on destinations: https://travelhealthpro.org.uk/countries For vaccine lifespan: https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/travel-vaccinations/jabs/ Antimalarials (Maloff Protect): For adults you can buy these over the counter after the consultation at £2 per tablet. For children please enquire. Need to book more than one vaccine? Please make a booking for a single vaccine and leave a note with the booking for the other vaccines you require. We will reserve the vaccines and call you if there are any issues. Note: We offer a 5% discount for cash payments. Please make sure you fill in the form in the appointment confirmation which you will recieve (as a link). This will allow us to do a risk assessement before your arrive and check all your travel requirements for a swift & safe appointment. *Note* Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Mega V Formula | Epicare Health
.. < Back Mega V Formula £169 About this Drip The Mega V Formula is a comprehensive nutrient cocktail. It combines the power of a high-dose B-Complex, essential Electrolytes, and a robust Amino Acid profile into a single treatment. Our patients choose this powerhouse drip when they want a total system reboot. It is ideal for: Athletes requiring both energy for performance and nutrients for recovery. Anyone feeling "empty" who needs a complete nutritional top-up. Boosting immunity and circulation simultaneously. Key Benefits Key Benefits For Maximum Energy Dual-Action B12: Uniquely contains two forms of Vitamin B12 (Methylcobalamin & Adenosylcobalamin) to target both physical stamina and mental alertness. Fuel Production: High doses of B1, B2, B3, B5, and B6 ensure your body can convert food into energy efficiently, eliminating the mid-afternoon slump. For Performance & Body Circulation Boost: Contains 2,000mg of Arginine , helping to open blood vessels for better oxygen delivery and heart health. Muscle & Nerves: Magnesium and Potassium replenish electrolytes to prevent cramping and relax the nervous system. Calm Focus: Taurine and Glycine help regulate the body's stress response, keeping you calm even when you are energized. How it works (The Science) Nutrients work best in teams. For example, your body needs Magnesium to process B-Vitamins. The Mega V Formula utilizes "Nutrient Synergy." By delivering a broad spectrum of minerals, aminos, and vitamins together intravenously, we create an environment where your body can absorb and utilize these nutrients more effectively than if they were taken individually. The Experience: What to expect At Epicare, we blend medical expertise with a relaxing environment to ensure your treatment is as comfortable as it is effective. Consultation: Your appointment begins with a brief health check with our clinician to review your medical history and ensure the formulation is perfectly suited to your needs. Relaxation: You will be seated comfortably in our clinic. Our experienced clinician will cleanse the area and gently insert a sterile micro-needle. The Infusion: Depending on your specific formulation, the drip will be administered over 30 to 60 minutes (longer for specialist drips). During this time, you are free to read, work on your phone, or simply close your eyes and relax. Aftercare: Once finished, the cannula is removed, and a sterile dressing is applied. Most patients can resume normal activities immediately. We advise staying well-hydrated for the rest of the day to help your body circulate the nutrients. Pre-Treatment Blood Tests: We recommend that patients complete the following blood tests before treatment: Full Blood Count, ESR, Liver Function, Kidney Function, and G6PD enzyme. Our Epicare Basic Screen offers the best-value way to complete most of these. The ESR and G6PD enzyme tests can be added separately if required. Ingredients The Mineral Base: Magnesium & Potassium (Electrolytes). High-Potency B-Complex: Vitamin B1, B2, B3, B5, B6. Premium B12: Methylcobalamin + Adenosylcobalamin. The Amino Blend: Arginine (2g), Taurine (1g), Glycine, Lysine, Tyrosine, Carnosine. Note This service is exclusively for individuals aged 18 and over. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required for the initial consultation, which will be deducted from the total treatment cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment. Multiple Drip Discount Discounted rates may be available when multiple IV drips are administered during the same appointment. The cost of any additional drips may be discounted when given together in a single session. Discounts can be discussed during your consultation.
- Facial Hair Removal
£30 < Back Facial Hair Removal £30 .1 . Description Hirsutism is where women have thick, dark hair on their face, neck and chest, tummy, lower back, buttocks, and thighs. This happens when you have a high level of hormones called androgens, or you are overly sensitive to them; this is commonly caused by polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). . Treatment Vaniqa is a cream for your face that acts at the base of the hair follicle and reduces new growth. Taking the contraceptive pill can also be beneficial in reducing hair growth. Vaniqa is a cream for your face that acts at the base of the hair follicle and reduces new growth. Taking the contraceptive pill can also be beneficial in reducing hair growth. Policy: *Note* The minimum age is 16 years old. We are not able to examine younger children. Furthermore, Any cancellation or rescheduling within 48 hours before the appointment will incur a charge of 20% of the total service cost and missed appointments will be deemed non-refundable.
- Genetic Full Cancer Risk
£849 < Back Genetic Full Cancer Risk £849 Description: A Genetic Full Cancer Risk Test, analyses a multitude of genes associated with an increased risk of developing various cancers. This test can be particularly valuable for individuals with a strong family history of cancer, a personal history of early-onset cancer, or those belonging to ethnicities with higher risks for specific hereditary cancers. By identifying mutations in genes linked to these risks, the test helps assess an individual's overall cancer risk profile. While a positive result doesn't guarantee developing cancer, it allows for more proactive measures like earlier screenings, preventive medications, or even surgeries in some cases. However, it's important to remember that a negative result doesn't eliminate cancer risk entirely. Gene List: AIP (AIP Familial Adenomatous Polyposis): This gene is a tumor suppressor involved in the Wnt signalling pathway, which regulates cell growth and development. Mutations in AIP can cause Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), a condition characterized by the development of numerous polyps (precancerous growths) in the colon and rectum. ALK (Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase): This gene encodes a protein involved in cell signalling. Mutations in ALK can cause some types of lung cancer, particularly those that are not associated with smoking. These ALK-positive lung cancers can often be treated with targeted therapies. APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli): This well-known tumour suppressor gene is the main culprit behind Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), like AIP. Mutations in APC disrupt the regulation of cell growth, leading to uncontrolled proliferation and polyp formation in the colon. ATM (Ataxia Telangiectasia Mutated): This gene plays a critical role in the DNA damage response pathway. When DNA damage occurs, ATM helps to activate cell cycle arrest and DNA repair mechanisms. Mutations in ATM can cause ataxia-telangiectasia, a rare genetic disorder characterized by progressive neurological problems, immune deficiencies, and an increased risk of cancer. BAP1 (BRCA1 Associated Protein 1): This gene encodes a protein that functions in several cellular processes, including DNA repair, cell cycle regulation, and tumour suppression. Mutations in BAP1 can increase the risk of various cancers, including uveal melanoma (eye cancer), mesothelioma (cancer of the lining of some organs), and renal cell carcinoma (kidney cancer). BLM (Bloom Syndrome): Mutations in this gene cause Bloom syndrome, a rare genetic disorder characterized by short stature, a predisposition to various cancers, and increased sensitivity to sunlight. BLM encodes a protein involved in DNA replication and repair. BMPR1A (Bone Morphogenetic Protein Receptor Type 1A): This gene encodes a protein involved in the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) signalling pathway, which regulates cell growth, differentiation, and development. Mutations in BMPR1A can cause Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia (HHT), a condition characterized by abnormal blood vessel development that can lead to nosebleeds, bleeding in the lungs (pulmonary arteriovenous malformations - PAVMs), and sometimes in the brain. BRCA1 (Breast Cancer Gene 1): This well-known tumour suppressor gene plays a critical role in DNA repair. Mutations in BRCA1 significantly increase the risk of breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and some other cancers. BRCA2 (Breast Cancer Gene 2): Similar to BRCA1, BRCA2 is another tumour suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. Mutations in BRCA2 also significantly increase the risk of breast cancer and ovarian cancer, as well as other cancers. BRIP1 (BRCA1 Interacting Protein 1): This gene encodes a protein that interacts with BRCA1 and helps it function in DNA repair processes. Mutations in BRIP1 may slightly increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer, but the association is not as strong as with BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations. CDC73 (Cell Division Cycle 73): This gene plays a role in DNA replication during cell division. Mutations in CDC73 are not well understood but may be implicated in certain cancers. CDH1 (Cadherin 1): This gene encodes a protein involved in cell adhesion, which helps cells stick together and form tissues. Mutations in CDH1 have been linked to certain types of stomach cancer. CDK4 (Cyclin-Dependent Kinase 4): This gene encodes a protein that promotes cell cycle progression. CDK4 is involved in regulating the G1/S checkpoint, a critical control point in the cell cycle where the cell decides whether to proceed with DNA replication. Overactivity of CDK4 can contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer development. CDKN1C (Cyclin-Dependent Kinase Inhibitor 1C, p57): In contrast to CDK4, this gene encodes a protein that inhibits cell cycle progression. CDKN1C (p57) acts as a tumour suppressor by preventing uncontrolled cell division. CDKN2A (Cyclin-Dependent Kinase Inhibitor 2A, p16): Like CDKN1C, CDKN2A (p16) is another tumour suppressor gene that inhibits cell cycle progression. Mutations in CDKN2A can be found in various cancers, including melanoma and pancreatic cancer. CEBPA (CCAAT/Enhancer Binding Protein Alpha): This gene is essential for the development and function of various blood cells, particularly granulocytes. Mutations in CEBPA can cause various blood disorders, including acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). CEP57 (Centrosomal Protein 57): This gene encodes a protein involved in the function of centrosomes, structures that play a critical role in cell division. Mutations in CEP57 have been linked to some types of cancer, but the exact mechanisms are not fully understood. CHEK2 (Checkpoint Kinase 2): This gene plays a role in DNA damage response and cell cycle arrest. CHEK2 helps to activate repair mechanisms when DNA damage occurs and can also trigger cell death if the damage is too severe. Mutations in CHEK2 can increase the risk of various cancers, including breast cancer and colon cancer. CYLD (Cylindromatosis): This gene encodes a protein involved in a signalling pathway that regulates cell growth and death. Mutations in CYLD can cause cylindromatosis, a rare genetic disorder characterized by the development of benign skin tumours. DDB2 (Damage Specific DNA Binding Protein 2): This gene encodes a protein involved in DNA repair. DDB2 helps to recognize damaged DNA and recruit repair proteins. Mutations in DDB2 can contribute to a condition called xeroderma pigmentosum, characterized by extreme sensitivity to sunlight and a high risk of skin cancer. DICER1 (Dicer 1, Ribonuclease Type III): This gene encodes an enzyme that plays a crucial role in processing microRNAs (miRNAs). miRNAs are small non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression. Mutations in DICER1 can disrupt miRNA function and have been implicated in various cancers. DIS3L2 (DIS3 Like Dehydrogenase 2): This gene encodes an enzyme involved in DNA repair. Mutations in DIS3L2 are not well understood but may be linked to an increased risk of certain cancers. EGFR (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor): This gene encodes a cell surface receptor protein involved in cell growth, proliferation, and survival. Mutations or overactivity of EGFR can contribute to the development of various cancers, including lung cancer, breast cancer, and colorectal cancer. Drugs targeting EGFR are used for the treatment in some cancers. EPCAM (Epithelial Cell Adhesion Molecule): This gene encodes a protein present on the surface of epithelial cells. EPCAM is not directly involved in cancer development but is a commonly used marker for identifying and isolating epithelial cancer cells in diagnostic tests. ERCC2, ERCC3, ERCC4, ERCC5 (Excision Repair Cross-Complementary): These four genes encode proteins involved in the nucleotide excision repair (NER) pathway, a major mechanism for repairing DNA damage caused by UV radiation and other agents. Mutations in any of these genes can increase the risk of skin cancer and other cancers. EXT1 & EXT2 (Exostoses [Hereditary Multiple] 1 & 2): These genes encode enzymes involved in the synthesis of heparan sulphate, a sugar molecule found on the cell surface. Mutations in EXT1 or EXT2 can cause hereditary multiple exostoses (HME), a skeletal disorder characterized by the development of benign bone tumours. EZH2 (Enhancer of Zeste Homolog 2): This gene encodes an enzyme that modifies chromatin, the tightly packed structure of DNA within the cell. EZH2 adds a chemical tag (methyl group) to histone proteins, which affects how genes are expressed. Mutations in EZH2 can disrupt normal gene regulation and have been implicated in various cancers, including certain types of lymphoma and myeloid leukemia. Overactivity of EZH2 can lead to uncontrolled cell growth. FANCA (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group A): This gene is the first identified gene associated with Fanconi anemia (FA), a rare genetic disorder characterized by bone marrow failure, developmental abnormalities, and an increased risk of . FANCA is part of a complex pathway involved in DNA repair. Mutations in FANCA disrupt this pathway, leading to problems with DNA repair and increased chromosomal instability. FANCB (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group B): Similar to FANCA, FANCB is another gene involved in the Fanconi anaemia pathway. The protein encoded by FANCB interacts with other FA proteins and plays a critical role in DNA repair. Mutations in FANCB also contribute to the development of Fanconi anaemia. FANCC - This gene is part of the Fanconi anaemia (FA) pathway, which plays a critical role in DNA repair. Mutations in FANCC can lead to FA, a rare genetic disorder characterized by bone marrow failure, developmental abnormalities, and an increased risk of leukaemia. FANCD2 (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group D2): This gene is another key player in the Fanconi anaemia (FA) pathway. The protein encoded by FANCD2 interacts with FANCI to form a complex that is essential for DNA repair. Mutations in FANCD2 disrupt this complex and contribute to the development of FA. FANCE (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group E): While less well-understood compared to other FA genes, FANCE is also part of the FA pathway. It likely functions in DNA repair processes, but the exact mechanisms are still being elucidated. Mutations in FANCE contribute to FA development, FANCF (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group F): This gene encodes a protein involved in the FA pathway that interacts with several other FA proteins. FANCF plays a role in stabilizing DNA structures during repair processes. Mutations in FANCF disrupt this function and contribute to FA. FANCG (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group G): Similar to FANCE, FANCG is another FA gene with a less well-defined role. It is likely involved in DNA repair processes, but the specific mechanisms require further research. Mutations in FANCG contribute to FA development. FANCI (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group I): This gene encodes a protein that interacts with FANCD2 to form a complex crucial for DNA repair in the FA pathway. Mutations in FANCI disrupt this complex and contribute to FA. FANCL (Fanconi Anemia, Complementation Group L): This gene encodes a protein involved in the FA pathway that interacts with FANCM. FANCL plays a role in stabilizing DNA structures during repair processes. Mutations in FANCL disrupt this function and contribute to FA. FANCM (Fanconi Anaemia, Complementation Group M): This gene encodes a protein involved in the FA pathway that interacts with FANCL. FANCM plays a role in unwinding DNA structures during repair processes. Mutations in FANCM disrupt this function and contribute to FA. FH (Fumarate Hydratase): This gene encodes an enzyme involved in the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), a crucial metabolic pathway for energy production in cells. Mutations in FH can cause hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell cancer (HLRCC), a condition characterized by the development of benign smooth muscle tumours (leiomyomas) and an increased risk of kidney cancer. It's important to note that FH is not directly part of the FA pathway, but mutations can have similar consequences like increased risk of cancer. FLCN - Mutations in this gene cause Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome, a rare condition characterized by skin tumours, lung cysts, and a predisposition to kidney cancer. FLCN is a tumour suppressor gene, meaning it helps regulate cell growth and division. GATA2 - This gene is essential for the development of blood cells. Mutations in GATA2 can cause various blood disorders, including severe congenital neutropenia, a condition characterized by a lack of white blood cells. GPC3 - (Glypican 3) encodes a protein involved in cell signalling and development. HNF1A - This gene is involved in the development and function of the liver, kidneys, and pancreas. Mutations in HNF1A can cause maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), a type of diabetes that appears in early adulthood. HRAS (Harvey Rat Sarcoma Viral Oncogene Homolog): This gene encodes a protein called HRAS, a small GTPase involved in cell signaling pathways. HRAS regulates various cellular processes, including cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation. Mutations in HRAS that lead to its constant activation can contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer development. KIT (Kirsten Rat Sarcoma Viral Oncogene Homolog): Similar to HRAS, KIT encodes a protein (KIT) that functions as a receptor tyrosine kinase in cell signalling. KIT plays a crucial role in various processes, including cell survival, proliferation, and migration. Mutations in KIT can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and various cancers, such as gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GIST) and certain types of leukemia. MAX (MYC Associated Factor X): This gene encodes a protein that interacts with MYC, a well-known oncogene involved in cell growth and proliferation. MAX regulates MYC activity and plays a role in cell cycle progression. Mutations in MAX can disrupt this regulation and potentially contribute to cancer development, although the exact mechanisms are still being investigated. MEN1 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1): This tumor suppressor gene is responsible for a condition called Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN1). MEN1 syndrome is characterized by the development of tumors in multiple endocrine glands, such as the parathyroid glands, pituitary gland, and pancreatic islet cells. Mutations in MEN1 disrupt its tumor suppressor function, leading to uncontrolled growth in these tissues. MET (MET Proto-Oncogene): This gene encodes a protein called MET, a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in cell signaling pathways that regulate cell growth, survival, and migration. Mutations in MET that lead to its constant activation can contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and various cancers, such as lung cancer, gastric cancer, and some types of papillary thyroid carcinoma. MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS1, PMS2 (MutL Homolog 1, MutS Homolog 2, MutS Homolog 6, Postmeiotic Segregation 1, Postmeiotic Segregation 2): These five genes are all involved in DNA mismatch repair (MMR), a critical process for correcting errors that occur during DNA replication. Mutations in any of these genes can impair MMR, leading to increased mutations and a higher risk of developing certain cancers, particularly Lynch syndrome, a hereditary cancer syndrome characterized by an increased risk of colorectal cancer and other cancers. NBN (Nibrin): This gene encodes a protein involved in the DNA damage response pathway. NBN helps to activate cell cycle arrest and DNA repair mechanisms when DNA damage occurs. Mutations in NBN can disrupt this response, leading to increased genomic instability and a higher risk of developing cancers, such as breast cancer and leukemia. NF1 (Neurofibromatosis Type 1): This tumor suppressor gene is responsible for neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), a genetic disorder characterized by the development of non-cancerous tumors (neurofibromas) on the skin and nerves. Mutations in NF1 disrupt its tumor suppressor function, leading to uncontrolled growth of these tissues. NF2 (Neurofibromatosis Type 2): Similar to NF1, this tumor suppressor gene is responsible for neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2), another genetic disorder characterized by the development of tumors on nerves and the formation of benign growths in the brain (meningiomas). Mutations in NF2 disrupt its tumor suppressor function, leading to uncontrolled growth in these tissues. NSD1 (Nuclear Receptor Binding SET Domain Protein 1): This gene encodes a protein involved in chromatin remodeling, which regulates how tightly DNA is packaged within the cell. NSD1 modifies histones (proteins around which DNA is wrapped) to influence gene expression. Mutations in NSD1 have been linked to certain types of leukemia and may disrupt normal gene regulation. PALB2 (Partner and Localizer of BRCA2): This gene encodes a protein that interacts with BRCA2, a well-known tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. PALB2 helps BRCA2 function correctly in DNA repair processes. Mutations in PALB2 can increase the risk of breast cancer and other cancers like BRCA2 mutations but with a generally lower penetrance (likelihood of developing cancer). PHOX2B (Paired Box Homeobox 2B): This gene plays a critical role in the development and function of neural crest cells, which contribute to various tissues like the nervous system, bones, and pigment cells. Mutations in PHOX2B can cause various neurological disorders, including neuroblastoma (a childhood cancer) and congenital central hypoventilation syndrome (CCHS), a condition characterized by difficulty controlling breathing. PRF1 (Perforin 1): This gene encodes a protein called perforin, which is a key component of the immune system. Perforin helps cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) kill virus-infected cells and cancer cells by creating pores in their membranes. Mutations in PRF1 can impair CTL function and increase susceptibility to infections and certain cancers. PRKAR1A (Protein Kinase A Regulatory Subunit 1A): This gene encodes a regulatory subunit of protein kinase A (PKA), an enzyme involved in various cellular processes like metabolism, cell growth, and survival. Mutations in PRKAR1A can disrupt PKA signaling and have been linked to Carney syndrome, a rare genetic disorder characterized by various symptoms, including pigmented skin lesions, heart problems, and non-cancerous tumors. PTCH1 (Patched Homolog 1): This tumor suppressor gene plays a critical role in the Sonic Hedgehog signalling pathway, which is essential for embryonic development and regulates cell growth in adults. Mutations in PTCH1 can disrupt this pathway and lead to uncontrolled cell growth, contributing to various cancers, including basal cell carcinoma (a type of skin cancer) and medulloblastoma (a childhood brain tumor). PTEN (Phosphatase and Tensin Homolog): This well-known tumor suppressor gene encodes a protein that acts as a phosphatase, removing phosphate groups from other proteins. PTEN regulates cell growth, proliferation, and survival. Mutations in PTEN can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and contribute to various cancers, such as breast cancer, prostate cancer, and endometrial cancer. RAD51C & RAD51D (RAD51 Recombination Protein C & D): These two genes encode proteins involved in homologous recombination repair (HRR), a major pathway for repairing double-strand DNA breaks. RAD51C and RAD51D play crucial roles in this process by facilitating the exchange of genetic material between sister chromatids during DNA repair. Mutations in either gene can impair HRR and increase the risk of developing cancers, such as breast cancer and ovarian cancer. RB1 (Retinoblastoma 1): This tumor suppressor gene is named after the childhood eye cancer retinoblastoma, for which mutations in RB1 are a major cause. RB1 encodes a protein that regulates cell cycle progression. Mutations in RB1 disrupt this control and can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and various cancers, including retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma (bone cancer), and some types of lung cancer. RECQL4 (RecQ Like Helicase 4): This gene encodes a protein involved in DNA repair processes. RECQL4 functions in DNA unwinding and helps maintain genome stability. Mutations in RECQL4 can disrupt DNA repair and increase the risk of developing cancers, such as Bloom syndrome (a rare genetic disorder with cancer predisposition) and certain types of leukemia. RET (Rearranged Expressed Tyrosine Kinase): This gene encodes a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in various cellular processes, including cell development, migration, and survival. Mutations in RET can disrupt these processes and lead to various disorders, including Hirschsprung disease (a bowel disorder) and certain types of thyroid cancer. RHBDF2 (Rho GDP Dissociation Factor beta 2): This gene encodes a protein involved in regulating the Rho GTPase family, which plays a role in cell signaling pathways that control cell shape, movement, and adhesion. Mutations in RHBDF2 are not well understood but have been linked to some types of cancer, although the exact mechanisms are still being investigated. RUNX1 (Runt-related transcription factor 1): This gene encodes a protein that acts as a transcription factor, regulating the expression of other genes. RUNX1 plays a critical role in the development of various blood cells and the formation of bone. SBDS (Small Bard Syndrome 1): Mutations in this gene cause a rare genetic disorder called Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (SDS). SDHAF2 (Succinate Dehydrogenase Complex Assembly Factor 2): This gene encodes a protein involved in the assembly of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH), a complex enzyme within the mitochondria (energy-producing organelles in cells). SDHB - This gene provides instructions for making a protein involved in the complex process by which cells produce energy. Mutations in SDHB can cause hereditary paraganglioma-pheochromocytoma syndrome, characterized by tumours that develop in certain glands near the kidneys and adrenal glands. SDHC & SDHD (Succinate Dehydrogenase Complex Subunit C & D): These are not technically biomarkers themselves, but rather genes that encode subunits of an enzyme complex called succinate dehydrogenase (SDH). Mutations in these genes can lead to SDH deficiency, which can disrupt mitochondrial function and be associated with certain cancers, particularly paragangliomas (tumours arising from nerve cells near the kidneys and adrenal glands). However, SDH deficiency testing can be a biomarker used to diagnose SDH-deficient cancers. SLX4 (Single Locus X-linked 4): This gene encodes a protein involved in spermatogenesis (sperm production). Mutations in SLX4 are associated with a rare genetic disorder called X-linked sideroblastic anaemia, characterized by microcytic anaemia (small red blood cells) and iron overload in developing red blood cells. SLX4 mutations are not typically used as a biomarker for cancer. SMAD4 (SMAD Family Member 4): This gene encodes a protein involved in the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) signalling pathway, which regulates cell growth, differentiation, and development. Mutations in SMAD4 can disrupt this pathway and contribute to the development of various cancers, particularly pancreatic cancer, colorectal cancer, and head and neck cancers. SMAD4 loss can be a biomarker used for the diagnosis and prognosis of these cancers. SMARCB1 (SWI/SNF Related, Matrix Associated, Actin Dependent Regulator of Chromatin, Subunit B1): This tumour suppressor gene plays a role in DNA repair and chromatin remodelling. Mutations in SMARCB1 can lead to a condition called schwannomatosis, characterized by the development of multiple benign nerve sheath tumours (schwannomas). Loss of SMARCB1 expression can also be a biomarker for certain cancers, such as epithelioid sarcoma and malignant rhabdoid tumours. STK11 (Serine/Threonine Kinase 11): This gene encodes a protein called LKB1, a tumour suppressor involved in regulating cell growth and metabolism. Mutations in STK11 can contribute to Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder characterized by intestinal polyps and an increased risk of certain cancers, particularly colon cancer and lung cancer. STK11 mutations can be a biomarker for these cancers. SUFU (Suppressor of Fused): This gene encodes a protein that negatively regulates the Hedgehog signalling pathway, which plays a crucial role in embryonic development and regulates cell growth in adults. Mutations in SUFU can disrupt this pathway and lead to uncontrolled cell growth, contributing to various cancers, such as medulloblastoma (a childhood brain tumour) and basal cell carcinoma (a type of skin cancer). SUFU loss can be a biomarker for these cancers. TMEM127 (Transmembrane Protein 127): This gene encodes a protein with an unknown function. Mutations in TMEM127 have been linked to a rare neurodevelopmental disorder called Pitt-Hopkins syndrome. The role of TMEM127 mutations in cancer is not well understood, and it's not currently used as a biomarker. TP53 (Tumour Protein 53): This well-known tumour suppressor gene encodes a protein called p53, often referred to as the "guardian of the genome" due to its critical role in DNA repair, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis (programmed cell death). Mutations in TP53 are the most common genetic alterations found in human cancers and can contribute to various types of cancer. TP53 mutations or loss of p53 function is a biomarker used in cancer diagnosis and prognosis. TSC1 & TSC2 (Tuberous Sclerosis Complex 1 & 2): These genes encode proteins that function as tumour suppressors in the mTOR signalling pathway, which regulates cell growth and proliferation. Mutations in TSC1 or TSC2 can lead to tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC), a genetic disorder characterized by the development of benign tumours in various organs, including the brain, skin, kidneys, and heart. TSC1/2 loss can also be a biomarker for certain cancers, such as renal cell carcinoma (kidney cancer). VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau): This tumour suppressor gene plays a critical role in regulating oxygen homeostasis (oxygen balance) in cells. Mutations in VHL can lead to von Hippel-Lindau disease, a genetic disorder characterized by the development of various tumours and cysts in different organs. VHL loss can also be a biomarker for certain cancers, such as renal cell carcinoma (kidney cancer) and hemangioblastomas (tumours of blood vessels). WRN (Werner Syndrome Recessive): Mutations cause Werner syndrome, a rare premature aging disorder. The WRN protein is involved in DNA repair, and mutations lead to DNA damage accumulation and symptoms like early cataracts and increased cancer risk. WT1 (Wilms Tumour 1): This gene encodes a protein that regulates other genes crucial for kidney and urogenital development. Mutations in WT1 can contribute to Wilms tumour, a childhood kidney cancer, and can be a biomarker for this type of cancer. XPA & XPC (Xeroderma Pigmentosum, Complementation Group A & C): These genes encode proteins involved in repairing DNA damage caused by UV radiation. Mutations in XPA or XPC can cause xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), a rare disorder with extreme sun sensitivity and a very high risk of skin cancer. Mutations can be used to diagnose XP. Estimated Turnaround times: 6 Weeks Note: This service is only available to the age of 13 and above. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required , which will be deducted from the total cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Indican (Urine)
£49 < Back Indican (Urine) £49 Description? High levels of indican in your urine indicates bacterial dysbiosis or small intestine bacterial overgrowth. Estimated turnaround times: 2-5 Working days Note: This service is only available to the age of 13 and above. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required , which will be deducted from the total cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Heart Health
£79 Heart Health £79 < Back Heart Health A heart health blood test is a valuable tool used to assess your risk of developing heart disease. It involves analyzing a sample of your blood to measure various substances that can indicate the overall health of your heart and circulatory system. Biomarkers: Total Cholesterol is a measurement of the total amount of cholesterol in the blood. This includes low-density and high-density lipoprotein cholesterols. Cholesterol is used to produce hormones for development, growth, and reproduction. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is a form of cholesterol which is considered ‘good’ cholesterol because it helps remove cholesterol from the heart’s arteries. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is considered ‘bad’ cholesterol because it contributes to cholesterol build-up and blockage in the arteries. Total Cholesterol: HDL Ratio is a mathematical calculation that indicates the ratio of total cholesterol versus ‘good’ (HDL) cholesterol in the blood. Triglyceride is another type of fat (not the same as cholesterol) found in the bloodstream. Apolipoprotein A-I (Apo A-I) blood test measures the amount of Apo A-I protein in your blood. Apo A-I is the main protein found in high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, often referred to as "good" cholesterol. HDL helps remove cholesterol from the blood and transport it to the liver for breakdown. Apolipoprotein B (Apo B) blood test measures the amount of Apo B protein in your blood. Apo B is a protein that carries "bad" cholesterol (LDL cholesterol) and other fats through your bloodstream. High levels of Apo B are linked to an increased risk of heart disease. Apolipoprotein B / A-I Ratio is a blood test that provides a more accurate assessment of cardiovascular risk compared to traditional cholesterol measurements. Apolipoprotein CII (Apo CII) is a protein involved in the breakdown of fats in the blood. It's found in large fat particles absorbed from the intestines and in very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL), which is primarily made up of triglycerides (a type of fat. Apolipoprotein CIII (Apo CIII) is a protein involved in lipid metabolism. It's found in triglyceride-rich lipoproteins like very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and chylomicrons. Apo CIII inhibits the breakdown of triglycerides, which can lead to higher levels of these fats in the blood. Apolipoprotein E test determines the specific variations (alleles) of the Apo E gene you inherit. There are three common variations: E2, E3, and E4. These variations influence how your body processes cholesterol and fats Small-dense LDL cholesterol is a specific type of "bad" cholesterol. Unlike larger LDL particles, these are smaller and denser. They are more likely to seep into the walls of your arteries, contributing to plaque buildup and increasing your risk of heart disease. Lipoprotein(a), often abbreviated as Lp(a), is a complex particle in the blood that is like LDL cholesterol but with an additional protein component. this sticky substance can build up in artery walls, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke. C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) is a protein that increases in the blood during inflammation. hs CRP tests are used to predict the risk of heart conditions such as a heart attack. It can also be used to indicate whether an infection is bacterial or viral. Estimated turnaround time: 2-5 Working Days Note: This service is only available to the age of 13 and above. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required , which will be deducted from the total cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Hepatitis B Adult
£47 per dose < Back Hepatitis B Adult £47 per dose Hepatitis B Adult Hepatitis B is a viral infection of the liver spread by direct contact with the blood or body fluids of an infected person. It occurs worldwide with the highest rates reported in parts of East Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa. Higher rates of infection are also found in the Amazon, southern parts of Eastern and Central Europe, the Middle East, and the Indian subcontinent. In many cases, symptoms do not occur. Symptoms more commonly occur in adults than children and may include: jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes), loss of appetite, fever, and abdominal pain. Persistent hepatitis B infection develops in 80 to 90 percent of those infected in the first year of life and in only five percent of those infected in adult years. Persistent infection may lead to liver failure or liver cancer. What Vaccines are available? Several well-tolerated inactivated hepatitis B vaccines, including combined hepatitis A/B products, are available and vaccination is recommended for all travellers considered at risk. Vaccine Schedules Adults and children above 16 years Conventional schedule (Three doses) Dose 1: Day 0 Dose 2: Month 1 Dose 3: Month 6 Accelerated schedule (four doses) Dose 1: Day 0 Dose 2: Month 1 Dose 3: Month 2 Booster : Month 12 (for long term immunity) Adults above 18 years Very rapid schedule (four doses) Dose 1: Day 0 Dose 2: Day 7 Dose 3: Day 21 Booster : Month 12 (for long term immunity) Protection duration: 20-30 years. How far in advance do I need to book my vaccine for my trip? 2 weeks before is preferable, but you can have the vaccine last up to the day before traveling. Click here to view junior hep B vaccine information/booking. Prevention All travellers should avoid contact with blood and bodily fluids by: avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse. using appropriate protective precautions where contact is unavoidable e.g. due to occupation. avoiding tattooing, piercing and acupuncture (unless sterile equipment is used) not sharing needles or other injection equipment. not sharing shaving equipment Any traveller can be at risk of an accident or require emergency treatment. Travellers should be aware that using precautions will also help protect against other blood and body fluid-borne viruses, such as HIV and hepatitis C, for which there are currently no vaccines. A sterile medical equipment kit may be helpful when travelling to resource poor areas. Need other vaccines? Please click on the links below for travel vaccination requirements/ advice. For vaccine recommendations and information on conditions based on destinations: https://travelhealthpro.org.uk/countries For vaccine lifespan: https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/travel-vaccinations/jabs/ Antimalarials (Maloff Protect): For adults you can buy these over the counter after the consultation at £2 per tablet. For children please enquire. Need to book more than one vaccine? Please make a booking for a single vaccine and leave a note with the booking for the other vaccines you require. We will reserve the vaccines and call you if there are any issues. Note: We offer a 5% discount for cash payments. Please make sure you fill in the form in the appointment confirmation which you will recieve (as a link). This will allow us to do a risk assessement before your arrive and check all your travel requirements for a swift & safe appointment. *Note* Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Calprotectin (Stool)
£129 < Back Calprotectin (Stool) £129 Description? This is a test for the biomarker Calprotectin, having high levels of calprotectin in your stools is an indication of inflamation in your intestines. This can be linked to conditions such a crohns disease, ulcerative colitis, and colorectal cancer. Estimated turnaround times: 7 Working days Note: This service is only available to the age of 13 and above. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required , which will be deducted from the total cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Enhanced PRP (High concentration PRF)
From £199 < Back Enhanced PRP (High concentration PRF) From £199 Description PRF - Enhanced PRP – Advanced Skin & Hair Rejuvenation What is Enhanced PRP (Platelet-Rich Plasma)? Enhanced PRP (Platelet-Rich Plasma), also known as PRF (Platelet-Rich Fibrin) is a cutting-edge regenerative treatment that harnesses your body’s natural healing abilities. It involves extracting a small amount of your blood, processing it to concentrate the platelets, and then re-injecting it into the scalp to stimulate hair follicle growth, improve hair density, and promote natural hair restoration. Powered by the Cutting-Edge Arthrex ACP PRP System At our clinic, we use the Arthrex ACP PRP System – a superior and advanced method that outperforms standard PRP techniques, providing higher platelet concentration and greater results. Our Enhanced, high concentration PRP advanced treatment is designed to stimulate dormant hair follicles and promote thicker, healthier hair growth. Using the innovative Arthrex Autologous Conditioned Plasma (ACP) system, this procedure isolates and concentrates platelets and growth factors from your own blood in a sterile, closed process. With platelet concentrations up to 5–12 times higher than baseline, this high-performance formulation functions similarly to Platelet-Rich Fibrin (PRF), offering a more sustained release of regenerative factors than standard PRP. These potent growth factors are delivered directly to the scalp, revitalizing hair follicles and supporting natural regrowth. Because it uses your own blood, this procedure is inherently natural and exceptionally safe , significantly reducing the potential for complications. Endorsed by global organizations like the International Society of Hair Restoration Surgery (ISHRS) and backed by clinical research from leading institutions such as Harvard Medical School , Enhanced PRP (PRF) offers a safe, minimally invasive solution for hair thinning and loss. This scientifically validated treatment produces noticeable improvements in hair density and strength over a series of sessions, making it an effective option for both men and women seeking long-term results. Plasma separated from patient's blood being used for PRP treatment Why Choose Enhanced PRP (High-Concentration PRF)? ✔️ Higher Platelet Concentration – More growth factors for faster, better results. ✔️ Minimal Inflammation – Ultra-pure PRP with reduced red and white blood cells. ✔️ Faster Processing, Faster Healing – Ready in just minutes for optimal tissue regeneration. ✔️ No Additives, Just Pure PRP – Unlike standard ACD PRP, no anticoagulants interfere with the quality. Enhanced PRP vs. Standard PRP: What Sets It Apart? Feature Enhanced PRP (Arthrex ACP) Standard PRP (ACD Tubes) Platelet Purity ✅ High-purity PRP with fewer red & white blood cells ❌ Contains unwanted cells, leading to inflammation Platelet Concentration ✅ 2x-3x more concentrated growth factors ⚠️ Less platelet-rich, reducing effectiveness Processing Time ✅ Under 5 minutes ⏳ 10-15 minutes Healing & Results ✅ Faster healing, longer-lasting effects ⚠️ Slower regeneration, shorter-lived results Additives? ✅ No anticoagulants ❌Uses ACD, which may alter PRP performance Consistency ✅ Uniform and high-quality PRP every time ❌ Variable PRP quality based on tube type and handling Why Our Clinic Uses the Arthrex ACP PRP System 🏆 We prioritize results. By using the most advanced PRP technology, we ensure higher efficacy, faster recovery, and superior rejuvenation compared to standard PRP techniques. Whether you’re looking to refresh your skin, reduce fine lines, or promote hair growth, our Enhanced PRP delivers unparalleled outcomes. What is Hair Loss? Hair loss on the scalp refers to the thinning or shedding of hair, which can occur gradually or in patches. It is often caused by factors such as genetics, hormonal changes, age, stress, or certain medical conditions. The most common type of scalp hair loss is androgenetic alopecia, also known as pattern baldness, which affects both men and women. This condition leads to thinning hair, a receding hairline, or bald patches on the scalp, impacting appearance and confidence. Procedure Here's how it works: Blood Draw: A small amount of blood is drawn from your arm. Blood is drawn from the arm Centrifuging: Next, the blood is spun in a state-of-the-art Arthrex ACP centrifuge. This advanced system efficiently separates and concentrates your platelets into a powerful, high-concentration solution rich in growth factors and proteins such as TGF-β, or VEGF. The blood sample is centrifuged to isolate the highly concentrated platelet-rich plasma Injection: The concentrated PRP is precisely injected into targeted areas of your scalp, kick-starting your body’s natural healing process. This stimulates hair follicle regeneration and encourages the growth of new, healthy hair. PRP injected into precise areas to target the hair loss effectively Product administered On average, approximately 20-30 mL of blood is drawn from the patient and then processed to extract a highly concentrated dose of platelet-rich plasma fibrin. After processing, typically 10 mL of PRP is injected into the treatment area, but this can vary depending on the procedure and the area being treated. Timeline and Expected Reults The number of PRP treatments needed for hair loss depends on your hair condition and goals. Typically, you'll need two to three initial sessions, spaced 4–6 weeks apart. Platelet-rich plasma (PRP) hair treatments can take 3–6 months to show significant results, and the effects can last up to 12 months. Maintenance sessions are required to sustain the results. Appointment Duration 60 mins Note: This service is exclusively for individuals aged 18 and over. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required for the initial consultation, which will be deducted from the total treatment cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. If you require treatment for multiple areas , please fill out an enquiry form by clicking here , and we can offer you a more cost-effective quote. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Superoxide Dismutase
£69 Superoxide Dismutase £69 < Back Superoxide Dismutase This blood test measure the levels of the enxyme superoxide dismutase (SOD). Biomarkers: Superoxide dismutase Estimated turnaround time: 2-5 Working Days Note: This service is only available to the age of 13 and above. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required , which will be deducted from the total cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
- Chin Augmentation | Epicare Health
< Back Chin Augmentation From £199 Description Chin augmentation is a cosmetic procedure designed to enhance the appearance of the chin, improving facial balance and profile. Whether you're looking to correct a recessed chin or achieve a more harmonious facial structure, chin augmentation can help you achieve a natural, enhanced look with the help of dermal fillers. What is Dermal Fillers? Dermal fillers are injectable treatments that restore volume and smooth wrinkles. Made from substances like hyaluronic acid, they are commonly used to reduce signs of aging, such as lost volume in the face, and to enhance features like the lips and cheeks. How can Dermal Fillers help? For Chin Augmentation, dermal fillers are used to enhance the shape and structure of the chin by injecting hyaluronic acid or other volumizing substances. This treatment adds definition, improving the balance and proportion of the chin in relation to the rest of the face. Dermal fillers offer a non-surgical solution to create a more sculpted, harmonious chin contour. During your consultation, our clinicians will discuss your goals and determine if dermal fillers are the right choice to help you achieve a more defined and proportionate chin. Timeline and Expected results Your results will begin to develop within a few days and can last up to 18 months, with most patients enjoying the effects for at least 12 months. The exact duration varies based on the treatment area, the type of filler used, and individual factors.. Product administered During your consultation, you'll receive expert guidance on the most suitable dermal filler for your specific needs and area of concern. For Chin Augmentation, one of the following products will be administered: JUVÉDERM® Ultra 4 JUVÉDERM® Volux JUVÉDERM® Voluma The products may be administered with a Cannula using the linear threading technique. This technique involves using a specialized blunt-tip cannula to inject dermal fillers in a controlled, linear pattern. The cannula allows for more even distribution of the filler and can help restore volume and definition in the treatment area with fewer injection points. The method minimizes discomfort and offers a more precise approach. During your consultation, our clinicians will assess whether the cannula linear threading technique is the best option for your desired outcome. Appointment Duration 60 mins Note: This service is exclusively for individuals aged 18 and over. During booking, only a £30 deposit is required for the initial consultation, which will be deducted from the total treatment cost. The remaining payment will be collected at a later stage. If you require treatment for multiple areas , please fill out an enquiry form by clicking here , and we can offer you a more cost-effective quote. Any cancellation, rescheduling, or missed appointment within 48 hours of the scheduled time will result in the loss of the £30 deposit. If you wish to reschedule, a new £30 deposit will be required to secure the new appointment.
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